Showing posts with label Class 10 Biology. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Class 10 Biology. Show all posts

Monday, 17 May 2021

📖CLASS 10 LIFE PROCESS MCQs



SUBJECT – BIOLOGY (LIFE PROCESSES)

MCQs QUESTIONS

Q1- In which group of the organisms the food material is broken down outside the body ?
A) Mushroom, green plants, amoeba
B) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
C) Paramecium, amoeba, cuscuta
D) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm
Q2- Select the correct statement -
A) Hetrotrophs make their food
B) Heterotrophs utilize solar energy to make food
C) Heterotrophs do not make their own food
D) Heterotrophs are capable of converting carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates
Q3- Which of the following statements about autotrophs is incorrect ?
A) They synthesize carbohydrates by using carbon dioxide , water in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll
B) They store carbohydrates in form of starch
C) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight
D) They form the first trophic level in food chain
Q4- Which of these reactions occur in photosynthesis?
A) Carbon dioxide is reduced and water is oxidised
B) water is reduced and carbon dioxide is oxidised
C) carbon dioxide and water are oxidised
D) carbon dioxide and water are reduced
Q5- A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue black in colour. This indicates rice water has -
A) complex proteins
B) simple proteins
C) starch
D) Fats
Q6- Which is the correct sequence -
A) mouth → stomach → small intestine → oesophagus → large intestine
B) mouth → oesophagus → stomach → large intestine → small intestine
C) mouth → stomach → oesophagus → small intestine → large intestine
D) mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine
Q7- If salivary amylase is lacking in saliva, which of the event in mouth will be affected-
A) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
B) starch breaking down into sugars
C) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
D) Absorption of vitamins
Q8- The inner lining of the stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric acid. Choose the correct one -
A) Mucus
B) Salivary amylase
C) Pepsin
D) Bile
Q9- Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from liver -
A) stomach
B) small intestine
C) large intestine
D) oesophagus
Q10- In which part of alimentary canal food is finally digested ?
A) large intestine
b) Stomach
C) Mouth cavity
D) small intestine
Q11- Choose the function of pancreatic juice from following :
A) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests carbohydrates
B) Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase digests proteins
C) Trypsin and lipase digest fats
D) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests emulsified fats
Q12- The correct sequence of anaerobic respiration -
A) Glucose → pyruvate → lactic acid
B) glucose → pyruvate → carbondioxide + ethanol
C) glucose → pyruvate → ADP→ lactic acid
D) glucose -→ pyruvate → carbondioxide + ethanol + energy
Q13- The pancreatic juice doesn't contain following enzymes-
A) Trypsin
B) Amylase
C) Lipase
D) Ptyalin
Q14- The pancreas pour their secretion into ___.
A) Small intestine
B) large intestine
C) stomach
D) Duodenum
Q15- The kidneys in human beings are part of ______.
A) Nutrition
B) Respiration
C) Excretion
D) Circulation
Q16- The opening and closing of stomatal pore depends upon ___.
A) Oxygen
B) water in guard cells
C) concentration of carbon dioxide in stomata
D) temperature
Q17- In the human digestion system the enzymes pepsin and trypsin are secreted by ?
A) Pancreas and liver
B) pancreas and gall bladder
C) stomach and pancreas
D) stomach and salivary glands
Q18- Which of the statements is correct regarding bile?
A) secreted by duct and stored in liver
B) secreted by liver and stored in bile duct
C) secreted by liver and stored in gall bladder
D) secreted by gall bladder and stored in liver
Q19- Which of the following components of food is digested by s. amylase?
A) proteins
B) fats
C) Minerals
D) carbohydrates
Q20- Where are proteins first digested?
A) small intestine
B) stomach
C) large intestine
D) mouth
Q21- Which is the first enzyme that mixes with food?
A) s.amylase
B) trypsin
C) erepsin
D) gastric juice
Q22- The cellular energy reserves in autotrophs are____.
A) glycogen
B) starch
C) protein
D) fatty acids
Q23- The autotrophs require ____.
A) CO2 and water
B) chlorophyll
C) sunlight
D) All
Q24- The breakdown of pyruvate into carbon dioxide, energy and water takes place in _____.
A) mitochondria
B) cytoplasm
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D) ribosomes
Q25- When air is blown through lime water it turns milky because of ______.
A) water
B) carbon dioxide
C) limestone
D) calcium oxide
Q26- Write the correct sequence of air passage involved in inhalation?
A) larynx→ Nostrils → Pharynx → lungs
B) nostrils→ Pharynx→ larynx→ Trachea → alveoli
C) nasal passage → larynx → Trachea → Pharynx→ Alveoli
D) None
Q27- During respiration exchange of gases takes place in _____.
A) Trachea and larynx
B) alveoli of lungs
C) Alveoli and throat
D) Throat and larynx
Q28- What prevents back flow of blood during contraction?
A) Valves in heart
B) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
C) Thin walls of atria
D) All
Q29- The correct path of urine is __.
A) Kidney→ ureter → urthra→ urinary bladder
B) Kidney → urinary bladder → urethra → ureter
C) kidney→ ureter → urinary bladder→ urethra
D) urinary bladder → kidney → ureter →urethra
Q30- During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of humans, pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid in____.
A) Cytoplasm
B) chloroplast
C) mitochondria
D) golgi body
Q31- Xylem helps in ___.
A) transportation of water
B) translocation of food
C) both a and b
D) transportation of water and minerals
Q32- What is the approximate length of an alimentary canal?
A) 3m
B) 4m
C) 5m
D) 4.5-5 m
Q33- Which organelle is called power house of cell?
A) Mitochondria
B) golgi body
C) ribosomes
D) none
Q34- Which respiration is much efficient?
A) aerobic
B) anaerobic
C) both are equal
D) none
Q35- Write full form of ATP.
A) adenosine diphosphate
B) adenosine phosphate
C) adenosine triphosphate
D) none
Q36- Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about respiration?
A) During inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised
B) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place i.e., oxygen from alveolar air diffuses
C) into blood and carbon dioxide from blood into alveolar air sacs
D) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen Alveoli does not help in increasing surface area for exchange of gases
Q37- During respiration exchange of gases takes place in___.
A) Trachea and larynx
B) Alveoli of lungs
C) Alveoli and throat
D) Throat and larynx
Q38- Which of the following statement (s) is (are) true about heart?
A) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of body while right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from lungs 
B) Both A and C
C) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different body parts while right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs
D) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to the right ventricle which sends it to different body parts Right atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of the body while left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of the body.
Q39- Single circulation i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage through the body, is exhibited by____.
A) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
B) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
C) Hyla, Rana, Draco
D) Whale, Dolphin, Turtle
Q40- Choose the correct statement that describes arteries:
A) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under high pressure; collect blood from different organs and bring it back to the heart
B) They have thin walls with valves inside, blood flows under low pressure and carry blood away from the heart to various organs of the body
C) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under low pressure; carry blood from the heart to various organs of the body
D) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside. The Blood flows under high pressure and carry blood away from the heart to different parts of the body
Q41- The filtration units of the kidney are called ___.
A) urethra
B) ureter
C) Neuron
D) nephron
Q42- Oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from_____.
A) water
B) Chlorophyll
C) carbon dioxide
D) glucose
Q43- The blood leaving the tissues becomes rich in _____.
A) Haemoglobin
B) carbon dioxide
C) water
D) oxygen
Q44- Which of the following is incorrect statement:
A) organism grow with time
B) Organisms must repair and maintain their structure
C) Movement of molecules does not take place among cells
D) Energy is essential for life processes
Q45- The internal (cellular) energy reservoir in autotrophs is:
A) glycogen
B) protein
C) starch
D) fatty acid
Q46- Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis?
A) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
B) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
C) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
D) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
Q47- Choose the form in which most of the plants absorb nitrogen from the atmosphere ?
A) proteins
B) nitrates and nitrites
C) atmospheric nitrogen
D) amino acids
Q48- Which process converts light energy to chemical energy ?
A) Respiration
B) photosynthesis
C) transpiration
D) transportation of water and minerals
Q49- Which of these is the simplest form of food ?
A) rice
B) wheat
C) Butter
D) Glucose
Q50- Which out of them is raw material for photosynthesis ?
A) carbon dioxide
B) water
C) oxygen
D) all
Comment for the answer

Friday, 14 May 2021

CLASS 10 SOURCES OF ENERGY

 


MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Sources of Energy



Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

1. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but still everybody discuss about the energy crisis because
(a) Energy transform into different form continuously.
(b) Usable form of energy is dissipated to the surroundings in less usable forms.
(c) Energy is consumed and cannot be used again.
(d) All of these

Answer/Explanation

Sources of Energy Class 10 MCQ with Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but usable form is dissipated to surrounding in less usable farm which can’t be used again.


2. An ideal source of energy should have
(a) higher calorific value
(b) easy transportability
(c) easy accessibility
(d) All of these

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) These are the characterises of ideal source of energy.


3. Fossile fuels are
(a) non-renewable source of energy
(b) renewable source of energy
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Fossile fuels were formed over million of years ago and there are only limited reserve. So they are non-renewable source of energy.


4. Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum and natural gas in
(a) presence of air
(b) absence of air
(c) presence of sunlight
(d) none of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) absence of air


5. Which of the following problem is associated with a burning of coal?
(а) Carbon-dioxide emission
(b) acid rain
(c) ash with toxic metal supurity
(d) all of these.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) all of these.


6. Select the important factor for the site selection of a thermal power plant.
(a) Distance from the populated area
(b) Availability of fuel
(c) Availability’ of water
(d) Cost of plant

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Water is required to produce steam. Thermal power plants are setup near the coal field and transmission of electricity is easy than transporting fuel.


7. Select the correct order of energy conversion in thermal power plant-

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) chemical energy – heat energy, mechanical energy, electrical energy


Sources of Energy Class 10 MCQs Question 8. Hydropower plant are located in the
(a) desert area
(b) plane area
(c) hilly terrains
(d) none-of above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Hydroelectric power plant are generally located in high hilly areas where dam can easily be buit and large reservoir for storage of water can be obtained.


9. Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because
(a) biogas has lower calorific value.
(b) animal dung cake has high calorific value
(c) biogas bums smoke and leaves no residue
(d) biogas is used as a fuel for cooking only wheareas dung cake can be used for cooking, illuminant the lanterns.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Biogas has high calorific value and leave no residue, no smoke after burning and can be used for domestic purpose, running engins and in gas lanterns for illumination.


10. Which of the following organism produces biogas from cow drug sherry in the biogas plant?
(a) aerobic bectria
(b) anaerobic bectria
(c) prolozoa
(d) fungi

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In the absence of oxygen, anaerobic micro-organism decomposed the compound of cow- dung sturry to generate biogas.


11. Wind is caused due to
(a) uneven heating of earth’s surface
(b) rotation of earth
(c) local conditions
(d) All of these

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All are the factors that responsible for the blowing of wind.


12. What are the disadvantage of solar energy
(a) A large surface area is required collect the solar
(b) Daily average of solar energy varies from 4 to 7 kwh/m2
(c) Highly hazardous toxic material is used in the manufacturing of solar device.
(d) All of the above are disadvantages.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All the points given are the disadvantage age of using solar energy.


13. The temperature inside the solar cooker ranges from
(a) 500-100°C
(b) 100-140°C
(c) 150-200°C
(d) 70-80°C

Answer/Explanation

Sources of Energy Questions and Answer: bExplanation:
(b) The box type solar cooker have a range 100-140°C.


14. The use of reflector in the solar cooker is to
(a) Decrease efficiency
(b) create green house effect
(c) increase efficiency
(d) none of these

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Reflectors (mirror) are used to focus the sun rays along with heat radiation inside the box to achieve high temperature.


15. Solar cells are made of
(a) germanium
(b) silicon
(c) silver
(d) aluminium

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) special grade silicon is used for making solar cells.


16. The material used for interconnection the solar cells in the solar panel is
(a) silicon
(b) silver
(c) aluminium
(d) copper

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Silver is the best conductor of electricity.


17. A solar panel is made by combining in an arrangement
(a) solar concentrator
(b) solar cookers
(c) solar cells
(d) solar chimney

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) A large number of solar cells connected together in a particular arrangement to deliver useful electrical power is called solar cell panel.


18. Tidal energy is a farm of energy obtained from the
(a) motion of surface water in ponds
(b) ocean in the form of tidal waves
(c) tides occurs in the river water
(d) motion of the wave in sea

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The energy produced by the surge of ocean water during high and low tides due to difference in sea level is called tidal energy.


Sources of Energy MCQ Question 19. Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam across
(a) narrow opening to the sea
(b) wide opening to the sea
(c) the river in hilly trains
(d) the river in plane areas

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam near the shores across narrow opening it.


20. Wave energy is caused due to
(a) strong winds blowing across the sea
(b) kinetic energy possessed by huge waves near the sea shore
(c) potential energy possessed by the stored water
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The waves are generated by a strong wind due to solar energy across the sea.


21. The working fluid in ocean thermal power plant is
(a) Volatile liquid like ammonia
(b) petrol
(c) charcoal
(d) liquified petroleum gas

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) volatile liquid like ammonia


22. Geothermal energy is
(a) Heat energy in the interior of earth
(b) energy of molten mars exists in the farm of magma inside the earth.
(c) molten lava on the surface of earth
(d) energy obtained from solar thermal electric plants

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) The heat energy trapped in the certain region of earth’s crust is called geo thermal energy.


23. U-235 will undergo fission by
(a) low energy neutrons only
(b) high energy neutrons only
(c) medium energy neutrons
(d) low energy protons only

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Heavy nucleus such as uranuim-235, when bombarded with low energy neutrons split into lighter nuclear with the liberation of large amount of energy.


Multiple Choice Questions on Sources of Energy Question 24. In a hydropower plant [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity
(b) Kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into potential energy
(c) Electricity is extracted from water
(d) Water is converted into steam to produce electricity.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) The stored water behind the dam has a potential energy which charges into the kinetic energy of falling water. This kinetic energy is utilized to rotate the turbine to produce electricity.


25. Which is the ultimate source of energy? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Water
(b) Sun
(c) Uranium
(d) Fossil fuels

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Sun is the ultimate source of energy directly or indirectly, all the form of energy are desired from solar energy.


MCQ Questions on Sources of Energy Class 10 Question 26. Which one of the following forms of energy leads to least environmental pollution in the process of its harnessing and utilisation? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Thermal energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Geothermal energy

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Solar energy leads to least environmental pollution in the process of its harnessing and utilisation.


27. Ocean thermal energy is due to [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) energy stored by waves in the ocean
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
(c) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
(d) tides arising out in the ocean

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Energy of warm surface water used to vaporise the low boiling point liquid ammonia. This vapours at high pressure is used to strin the turbines to generate electricity. Deep ocean cold water again condenses the used vapour into liquid.


28. The major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) split nuclei?
(b) sustain the reaction?
(c) dispose off spent fuel safely?
(d) convert nuclear energy into electrical energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) The waste product obtained from nuclear power plant is highly radioactive material and harmful for human beings and environment.


29. Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for green house effect? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Coating with black colour inside the box
(b) Mirror
(c) Glass sheet
(d) Outer cover of the solar cooker

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Glass lid of solar cooker trapped the heat energy inside the box.


30. The power generated in a windmill [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) is more in rainy season since damp air would mean more air mass hitting the blades
(b) depends on the height of the tower
(c) depends on wind velocity
(d) can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) About 75% methane is present in bir-gas


31. Choose the correct statement [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
(b) There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth
(c) Hydro and wind energy plants are non-polluting
(d) Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed off

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) In rainy season, wind velocity is higher. So the blades of windmill moves with greater speed.


32. A good fuel should possess
(a) high ignition temperature
(b) moderate ignition temperature
(c) high calorific value
(d) both high calorific value and moderate ignition temperature

Answer

Answer: d


33. The variety of coal which has the highest car-bon content
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Bituminous
(d) Lignite

Answer

Answer: a


34. Unit of calorific value of a substance is
(a) Kcal
(b) Joules
(c) J kg
(d) J/kg

Answer

Answer: d


MCQ on Sources of Energy Class 10 Question 35. Biogas is formed in the
(a) presence of air only
(b) presence of water only
(c) absence of air only
(d) presence of water and absence of air

Answer

Answer: d


36. Solar energy can be directly converted to elec-trical energy by which of the following de-vices?
(a) solar cooker
(b) solar heater
(c) solar cell
(d) solar geyser

Answer

Answer: c


37. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy?
(a) Water
(b) Sun
(c) Fossil fuels
(d) Uranium

Answer

Answer: b


38. Which of the following gases is the main con-stituent of natural gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane

Answer

Answer: a


39. Which element is used in solar cells?
(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
(c) Phosphorous
(d) Sulphur

Answer

Answer: b


40. Ocean thermal energy is produced due to
(a) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean.
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean.
(c) energy stored by waves in the ocean.
(d) tides rising out of the ocean.

Answer

Answer: b


41. A device in which electricity is produced by the process of controlled nuclear fission reaction is called
(a) nuclear chain reaction
(b) hydel power plant
(c) nuclear reactor
(d) thermal power plant

Answer

Answer: c


42. One major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is
(a) converting nuclear energy into electrical energy.
(b) sustaining the reaction.
(e) splitting the nuclei.
(d) disposing off spent fuel easily.

Answer

Answer: d


43. Spent slurry (Bio-waste after obtaining biogas) is used as
(a) fuel
(b) manure
(c) food for livestock
(d) used again for generating biogas

Answer

Answer: b


Direction (Q44 to Q48): In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are . correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
44. Assertion: Fuel has to be burnt to obtain heat energy.
Reason: The minimum temperature to which a fuel must be heated so that it may catch fire and start burning is known as ignition temperature.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.


45. Assertion: The major constituent of biogas is methane.
Reason: Biogas is produced by the aerobic degradation by animal wastes like cow ding in the presence of water.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.


46. Assertion: Wind energy farms cannot be established every where.
Reason: The wind energy farms can be established only at those places where wind blows for most part of the year.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.


47. Assertion: Coke is a better fuel than coal.
Reason: Burning of coke cause air pollution.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.


48. Assertion: Non-conventional sources of energy are the major source of energy for generating electricity in power plants.
Reason: Coal and petroleum are non- conventional energy sources.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.


49. Mirrors used for solar cooker are ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: convex


50. A fuel is a good one if its ______________ value is high.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Butane


51. Geothermal energy is widely trapped in USA and ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: New Zealand


52. ______________ reaction is more powerful than a fission reaction.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Fusion


53. Ocean thermal energy is used to boil ______________ before running the turbine.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Ammonia


54. Artificial satellites and space probes are electrified using ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Solar cells


55. Fossil fuels do not cause pollution. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


56. Acid rain is formed by acidic oxides of carbon, sulphur and nitrogen. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


57. The use of turbine is essential for the production of electrical energy. [True/F alse]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


58. The approximate percentage of energy met by India with the use of hydel energy is 25%. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


59. Windmills require giant structural erection and vast space. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


60. New Zealand is called as “Country of Winds”. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


Direction (Q49 to Q50): Match Column I with Column II.
61.

Column IColumn II
(a) Fossil fuels(i) Renewable
(b) Silicon(ii) Electrical energy
(c) Geothermal energy(iii) Depleting
(d) Turbine(iv) Solar cells
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)


62.

Column IColumn II
(a) Black surface(i) Water heaters
(b) Turbine(ii) Solar cell
(c) Semi conductors(iii) Generators
(d) Digestor(iv) Bio gas
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (i)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) (iv)


63. Define source of energy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A source of energy is one which can provide sufficient amount of energy in convenient manner over a long period of time.


64. Why are the coal, petroleum and natural gas called fossil fuels?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Coal, petroleum and natural gas, the common sources of energy, being organic (biotic) in their origin and formed over a long period of time are called fossil fuels.


65. If you could use any source of energy for heating your food which one would you prefer? State one reason for your choice.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
LPG because it does not leave any residue on burning.


66. What do you mean by the term ‘thermal power plant’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Thermal power plant is the power plant where coal is burnt to produce heat energy which is converted into electrical energy.


67. The cost of production of electricity in a thermal power station located in Bihar/ Jharkhand/Orissa is lesser than in Gujarat/ Maharashtra. Do you agree? Justify your answer. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Yes, it is because in Bihar/Jharkhand/Orissa, coal for thermal power plant is locally available whereas it has to be transported for any thermal power plant to be located in Gujrat/Maharashtra.


68. Which of the following power plants to produce electricity involves more running expenses and why? Thermal power station, hydro power station, an array of solar panel, wind energy farm or geothermal source.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Thermal power stations involve more running cost due to continuous use of coal.


69. What is acid rain? [CBSE 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The rain containing the acidic oxides such as oxides of carbon and traces of nitrogen and sulphur.


70. List two non-conventional source of energy. [Delhi 2014, DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Geothermal, solar, biomass, water, wind are the non-convention source of energy, (any two)


71. How does technology help in the transformation of energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Technologoy help us to provide the various means to transform the energy obtained from different source into useful form of energy.


72. Justify that the hydropower is a renewable source of energy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Hydropower is generated from water flowing out of the dam and water in the reservoir would be refilled each time it rains through the high altitude rivers on which dam is constructed.


73. Why the dams for generating hydroelectricity can be built only in the hilly areas or at the foothill?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is because to generate hydroelectricity water can fall from a considerable height.


74. State the main difference between thermal power and hydropower plants based on electricity generation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In thermal power plant, chemical energy of fossil fuel is used while potential energy of stored water is used in hydropower plant to produced electricity.


75. Write the energy conversion that takes place in a hydropower plant. [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The energy transformation taking place at hydropower plants is shown below:


76. Name the kind of energy possessed by wind and the device used to harness it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Kinetic energy, wind mill.


77. What is the minimum speed of wind to run a windmill to maintain the necessary speed of turbine of an electric generator?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: 15 km/h.


78. Name the place in India where the largest wind energy farm has been established and how much electricity does it generate?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is established near Kanyakumari is Tamil Nadu and it generates 380 MW of electricity.


79. Which country ranked first in harmessing wind energy for the production of electricity.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Germany.


80. How much land area is needed to establish a wind energy farm for generating 1 MW of electricity?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
About 2 hectares of land.


81. Which country is known as ‘country of winds’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Denmark.


82. Why a solar cooker painted black form outside? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to white or reflecting surface under identical conditions.


83. Which metal is used to connect various solar cells?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Silver.


84. A solar cell transforms energy of one form into another. What are these two ferm of energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A solar cell transform solar energy into electrical energy.


85. Name any two elements that are used in fabricating solar cells. [CBSE 2014, 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Germanium, Silicon.


86. Define solar panel.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A group of solar cells arranged in a definite pattern is called a solar panel.


87. What is the voltage developed by a typical solar cell?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A voltage of about 0.5 V to 1 V is developed by a typical solar cell.


88. How do satellites get energy to operate all the devices ?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
From solar energy conversion using solar cell panels.


89. Name the main component of solar cell. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Solar cell consists of different thin layers of silicon.


90. Name a device which can be used for cooking so as to save fuel.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Solar cooker.


91. Which gas is formed by decomposing plant and animal matter in masting areas?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Methane.


92. Name the part of a biogas plant where reactions take place in the absence of oxygen. [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Digester chamber.


93. Bio-gas is also known as gobar gas. Justify. [DoE] [CBSE 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Starting material for biogas is mainly cow-dung. So, it is also known as gobar gas.


94. Name the microorganism which decompose slurry into biogas.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Anaerobic bacteria.


95. List two nutrients that the slurry left behind in the biogas plant contain. [CBSE 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Nitrogen and phosphorous.


96. Aspart from cow-dung, name other materials which can be used for making bio gas.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Various plant materials like the residue after harvesting the crops, vegetable waste and sewage.


97. Why is CNG considered as environmental friendly fuel?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
CNG does not produce any harmful gases on burning. So atmosphere does not gets polluted.


Fill in the Blanks

1. In the wind energy farms, the wind speed should be higher than ………. to maintain the required speed of
the turbine.
2. The energy produced during controlled ………. reactions is used for generating electricity at nuclear
power plants.
3. The energy available due to the difference in the temperature of water at the surface of the ocean and at
deeper levels is called ………. .
4. Biogas is produced by the ………. of animal wastes or plant wastes in the presence of water.
5. Biogas is an excellent fuel as it contains 75% ………. along with other gases like ………., ………. and ………. .

Answers

1. 15 km/h
2. nuclear fission
3. Ocean thermal energy
4. anaerobic degradation
5. methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide

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